- 16th Amendment = Power to lay and collect taxes on income for any reason
- Commerce Clause = Vague Federal Responsibility to Regulate Commerce
- Slavery = Condition of Servitude
16th Amendment + Commerce Clause = Slavery
Let’s define Slavery first so we can more easily verify if the above combination does indeed hold true. There are 3 basic forms of Slavery;
- an institution of owning Human Beings as Property.
- a condition of servitude endured by a slave.
- a condition in which one is captivated or subjugated.
While a good argument can be made that all three apply to the above equation, I’ll be using the 2nd definition for simplicity. Without going into human ownership or motivations for subjugation, we’ll simply state that slavery = servitude since servitude is compulsory service.
Now that we’ve defined the result of the equation, we can verify whether the expression “the 16th Amendment plus the Commerce Clause” does indeed equal Slavery.
Let’s start with The Commerce Clause since it came first. The Constitution states in Article 1 Section 8 that Congress shall have the power “To regulate Commerce with Foreign Nations, and among the Several States, and with the Indian Tribes.” Commerce is the “exchange of something useful or valuable.”
While it is not necessary to discern the ‘turn of the 18th Century’s meaning‘ for this example, I used the term ‘vague’ in the Given Statement to show that its use today is as variable as the 500+ Federal Agencies that have been created with the Commerce Clause as their justification.
So a very loose and Central Planning (i.e. Progressive, Socialistic) interpretation allows the Gov’t to Regulate the exchange of all goods and services. While this may sound like a valuable tool for a Tyrant, Article 1 Section 2 and 9’s limitation to direct taxing based on a State’s capitation severely limits the Federal Government’s arbitrary use of the Commerce Clause.
So in comes (pun intended) the 16th Amendment to make the inconspicuous Commerce Clause into all that is needed to secure complete control over the entire American population. The 16th Amendment states “The Congress shall have power to lay and collect taxes on incomes, from whatever source derived, without apportionment among the several States, and without regard to any census or enumeration.”
To the uninterested, that declaration seems like just another Amendment enacted a century ago to help the Government pay its bills, but to the trained eye it completely abrogates the Bill of Rights in one fell swoop. This is nothing less than Federal Authority to Tax anyone’s labor and/or the exchange of anything useful or valuable for any reason, and without limit.
So let’s examine the Slavery Equation once again having made a cursory exploration of the terms.
Slavery (Compulsory Service) = Commerce Clause (Complete Federal Authority to Regulate the exchange of anything useful or valuable) + 16th Amendment (Complete Federal Authority to Tax Commerce without limitation)
If the Government has the complete Authority to Regulate all Commerce and to Tax the results of Commerce, then the Government has the Authority to Compel Americans to serve its ends using whatever it deems Necessary and Proper.
That my fellow citizens is the Definition of Slavery. One can debate the Motivation and the Benevolence of the Master(s), but no one cannot debate whether we are All de facto Slaves.
That being said, does the 13th Amendment overrule the 16th, or visa versa?